FAQ - TRINITY
What is understood by the expression,
"the triune God?" (E.S.M.)
<ANSWER>--Some have thought this to be a scriptural expression, but it is
not to be found in the Bible. It is believed to have originated in the heathen mythologies
of the Hindoos in ancient India. Webster defines the term "triune" as three in
one--"an epithet used to express the unity of a trinity of persons in the
Godhead." We know of but one passage in the Bible that actually teaches the doctrine
of a "triune God." But this passage is now conceded to be spurious by all Bible
scholars. The words found in `1 John 5,7` ("in heaven the Father, the Word and the
Holy Spirit, and these three are one; and there are three that bear witness in
earth"), are not contained in any of the oldest Greek manuscripts. The Religious
Dictionary, page 944, says: "It was not until the fourth century that the Trinitarian
view began to be elaborated and formulated into a doctrine, and an endeavor made to
reconcile it with the belief of the Church in one God . . . Out of the attempt to solve
this problem sprang the doctrine of the Trinity . . . Trinity is a very marked feature in
Hindooism, and is discernible in Persian, Egyptian, Roman, Japanese, Indian, and the most
ancient Grecian mythologies."
Is the oneness between Jesus Christ and God, the Heavenly Father, ethical
or metaphysical? (R.A.H.)
<ANSWER>--In the early history of the Church, after the Apostles
had fallen asleep, many bitter controversies were engaged in over this very
question. But now in these latter days when knowledge is increasing along all
lines, and particularly so as regards the knowledge and understanding of the
Scriptures, the solution of the matter is clearly seen. There is not a single
passage of Scripture to be found in which it is set forth that the Lord Jesus
and the Father are one in the metaphysical sense. Two texts are usually relied
upon to support the metaphysical view, but it has been wrongly translated and
the other is spurious as it is not contained in any of the old Greek manuscripts.
The first of these, `John 1:1`, should read--"In the beginning was the
Word, and the Word was with (<ho theos>) the God, and the Word was (<theos>)
a God. The same was in the beginning with (<ho theos>) the God."
The Logos was a God (mighty one) and was with the God (the Almighty One). The
spurious passage is found in `1 John 5:7`, and consists of the words, "in
heaven the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. And
there are three that bear witness in earth." As showing that the oneness
of the Father and the Son is in the ethical sense we need only to quote a portion
of the Lord Jesus' prayer--"I pray not for the world but for them which
Thou hast given Me, for they are Thine . . . neither pray I for these alone,
but for them also which believe on Me through their word; that they all may
be one, as Thou, Father, art in Me and I in Thee, that they also may be one
in Us...that they may be one, even as We are one; I in them and Thou in Me,
that they may be made perfect in one."--`John 17:9,20-23`.
If Christ was God the Father, and God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit;
how could a voice from heaven say--"This is My beloved Son," when
He was a man on earth? (Diogenes.)
< ANSWER> This is an age of general enlightenment. Knowledge
is increasing along all lines, and specially so in regard to the teachings of
the Scriptures. The superstitions and theories of the darker past are fading
away in the light that is gradually widening out unto the perfect day. The shadows
of ignorance and prejudice are still lingering here and there; but those minds
of bolder sway that have burst the bonds and shackles of the creeds and traditions
of former times, are rejoicing in the glorious liberty that comes to those who
know the truth. God's Word has been woefully misrepresented both by friends
and foes, and because many have been taught to believe that the absurd theories
found in the creeds are contained in the Bible; these, in the light of our day,
are rejecting the Bible as the inspired Word of God in place of studying the
Scriptures to ascertain what they really teach. The expression of the creeds,
contained in the question, is nowhere found in the Bible. Our Lord Jesus never
claimed to be "God the Father" but always said that He was the Son
of God. "My Father is greater than I"; "God sent His Son into
the world." Our Lord Jesus was not His own Father; but as the Scriptures
declare He "was the beginning of the creation of God." The voice from
heaven to the Son on earth proves absolutely, unless we deny our reasoning faculties
and become unreasonable, that the Heavenly Father and our Lord Jesus are two
distinct personalities.
Please explain Isaiah 9:6 where Jesus is referred to as being the "everlasting
father" and "mighty God". Doesn't this support the idea of the
Trinity?
< ANSWER> Isaiah 9:6 "For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace."
Regarding the possible confusion on this verse in harmonizing it with the scriptural teaching that Jesus is the Son of God, we observe that this verse is definitely a prophecy referring to Jesus. Jesus is a mighty god, but he is not the Almighty God. Remember that Jesus quoted verse (Psalm 82:6) in reproving the Jews for wanting to stone him for calling himself the Son of God.
Let us read this account in John 10:31-36: "Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, for a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou being a man, makest thyself God. Jesus answered them, is it not written in your law, I said, ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, thou blasphemes; because I said, I am the Son of God?
God in this sense means a mighty one. To refer to the one and only Almighty God, we need to add definitive language, like "Almighty."
So then in Isaiah 9:6 we can see that the phrase "mighty God" does not have to refer to the Heavenly Father, but can and does refer to Jesus.
Now the phrase "everlasting Father", means agelasting Father in the Hebrew.
But the thought of Jesus being a father is of more interest.
In I Corinthians 15:45 we read "And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam a life giving spirit". As Adam was the father or progenitor of the human family, so Jesus because of his willing sacrifice on the cross, became the second Adam, a life giving spirit for the dying human family. Adam gave us life, but actually we all die because of inherited sin. Jesus though, gives us the ability to gain perfect life and that eternally.
Similarly we read in Revelation 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify
unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David,
and the birth and morning star."
Jesus is the offspring of David in a sense through his genealogy through Joseph
and Mary. This fulfills certain prophecies. He is the root of David in the sense
that the root is the life source for a plant. Jesus will resurrect David, he
will be the life source for David in the future. So then, in effect, Jesus will
be a father or life giver to David, but not to David alone, but rather to all
mankind, just as the first Adam was to the whole human family.
We trust that this helps to explain Isaiah 9:6 with the rest of the scriptures
in explaining that Jesus is the Son of God Almighty, and that in the peaceable
kingdom, Jesus will be the mighty God empowered to restore the fallen human
family as his own as the second Adam or second father to the race.